Whats the rule that makes "please" pronounced the same as "pleas"?
12.06.2025 03:43

There's no rule.
What's (not “whats”) the rule?
If you're curious about why a word is spelled the way it's spelled, your first recourse should be etymonline dot com.
Whence the <ea> I cannot say but some other words that were spelled <ai> in French are spelled <ea> in English: aise → ease, graisse → grease, fait → feat.
Words are pronounced the way that they're pronounced.
Back in the day (circa 1300), it was written <plesen>.
The big, bad bond market could derail Trump’s big, beautiful bill - vox.com
Pleas is spelled <pleas> because it's the plural of pleas.
While you may reasonably ask why words are spelled the way they're spelled, it makes no sense to ask why they're pronounced the way they're pronounced.
Please is an anglicization of the French word plaisir.
Why did we evolve to have so many nerve endings in our anuses?
You'll usually find your answer there.